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Played an interesting hand last night at the Playtime Casino in Kelowna, BC…
I am in the BB and look down at KhKc ($300 effective)
UTG+1 opens to $15; MP LJ calls.
I 3bet to $50, and UTG+1 4bet min-raises to $100. LJ folds.
I call the $100 thinking he was ALL-IN… and so I expose my cards… Villain has $200 behind.
FLOP comes AdAh4s and I sigh and check.
Villain shoves all-in for his remaining $200.
Do you call or do you fold?
I think I’d call. I mean, it’s easy for him to scare you off your hand now. If he has an ace, I’ll guess he’d act a little bit discouraged by the flop and check, hoping that you’ll call him “light” on a later street. And if he has QQ or JJ, KQs, or 88 or I don’t know, now is the perfect timing to make you fold your kings.
on the other hand, it’s true that villain 4bets. Does he do it often? Could he 4bet light? What would his range be? Not sure after all, not that easy of a spot.
Oops! How did that happen? Well, he has to bet 100% of his hands at some point since you exposed. The question is, which hands would he jam the flop with? He also will not be expecting you to bet if he checks to you. How fast did he jam? I think I have to call, all things considered. Probably a coin toss.
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